Wednesday, January 05, 2005

something to consider.

what possible conclusions could one draw from the consumption of dissociative anesthetics (ie. dxm, ketamine, pcp) in terms of the psychoanalytic model? since these drugs are in effect dissociating given portions of one's brain, could they not have some kind of particular effect on the primacy of given aspects of the psyche, eg. conscious, unconscious, and thus have some form of applicability to psychoanalysis?

and what are hallucinuogenic drugs, really, but DIY psychoanalysis?


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